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Why his name was never JESUS - The letter "J" wasn't in existence until the 1600's!

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Ponder this: If the letter J was created around the 1600s (give or take a few years, based on your source) – Then how could the individual known as the Messiah – CHRIST – have been called the blasphemous name “Jesus” over 2,000 years ago?

Here’s the hard truth that modern day Christians need to accept: HE WASN’T! Satan is the master of DECEPTION!

Observe the video above created by Prime Cleric Richard Ruff of The Ecumenical Order of Christ.

Here’s is a snippit from the book “Christ Has Returned“, also compiled / written by our beloved Prime Cleric.

JESUS – As any scriptural scholar will tell you, Christ’s name was “Yeshua”, not “Jesus”. Some will tell you that the name change was caused by “grammatical errors”, “translation differences”, or a litany of other excuses. The world was purposely confused by Satan, so that no one could invoke the authority of God, through the proper name of His Son, and a “popular name” was given to the uneducated masses, this name was “Jesus”. Open almost any Bible and you will see that the proper names of Christ and his Father are replaced with: Jesus, God, Lord, etc. This was done on purpose. The letter ‘J’ did not exist in the Hebrew language or in the Greek, Latin or English languages until around the 16th century. Lord RayEl could have easily proclaimed his name to be “Jesus”, if he wanted to continue the deception, and avoid the controversy, but Lord RayEl insists upon truth in all matters. RAYMOND ELWOOD is his birth name, LEAR is his surname.”

IS-RA-EL also has more ancient roots than its Hebrew origins; remember Moses who wrote the Torah was raised as an Egyptian Prince.

ISis – was a goddess in ancient Egypt and means Throne, she was the mother nurturer – the High Priestess – the Goddess of creation.

RA – was a God in ancient Egypt and means ‘mouth’ or ‘speech’ – The Spoken Word.

EL – is the Hebrew God and originates from the ancient God Enlil and Ellil.

May the enlightened understand. Please post your comments in the replies section below.

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    • David

      It should be noted at the outset that the assertion that the name Jesus is of Greek and non-Hebrew origin is not fit.

      This name, transliterated into Greek as Iesous, is Hebrew and comes from Yeshua” (the quotation marks represent the letter ayin).

      The full form of the word is Yehoshua, “which, from the Captivity, generally gave way to the abbreviated form Yeshua”.

      Until the beginning of the second century AD Iesous (Yeshua”) was a very common name among the Jews. In the Septuagint, the Old Testament version that Jews made between AD 285 and 150 AD, from Hebrew to Greek, the name Iesous appears to refer to both Joshua (four individuals) and the eight Jeshua mentioned in Ezra and Nehemiah.

      Iesous is not the name of any god of Greek mythology, so much so that it does not appear in any Greek classic. See, for example, C. Alexandre’s Dictionaire Grec-Français (1868 pages), which, in the appendix of historical, mythological and geographical names, contains in the entry Iesous only the following: “Jesus, Hebrew name.”

      Now, in order, the answers to the questions proposed.

      1. In fact, in Hebrew there is no sound j. How, then, does this letter appear in biblical names in almost every language with which we are familiar? What happened was that the Jews of the Dispersion, engaged in translating the Hebrew scriptures into Greek (the Septuagint), did not find in this language a consonant that corresponded to the yodh of Hebrew, and the solution was to resort to the Greek vowel iota, which corresponds to our i. Then wrote Ieremias, beginning with i, and so on, including Iesous.

      But how did that i become j? It was through Latin, which gave birth to the Neolatine languages, among which is Portuguese. In Latin after the Middle Ages began to appear in writing the distinction that already existed in the pronunciation between the i vowel and the i consonant, which was now spelled j. So when you open the Latin-Portuguese Dictionary, by Santos Saraiva, you will find an entry that begins like this: Jesus or Jesus; and this other: Jeremiah or Jeremiah; and the like.

      2. Yehoshuah ends with the sound of AH; Where did Jesus originate from? Notice, first, that the end of this word is not AH (qamets followed by he), but the “(pathach followed by ayin; the quotation marks represent ayin): Yehoshua”.

      Secondly, Jesus does not derive from Yehoshua, “but from the abbreviated form Yeshua,” as explained earlier (see, for example, Ed 2.36). What precedes ayin is a stealthy pathach (see Hebrew Grammar, Guilherme Kerr, # 18.7).

      The final s in Jesus is explained by the need to make that name declinable: the Jews replaced the final ayin with a sigma (the Greek s) of the nominative case. In other cases the word declines like this: Iesou (genitive), Iesoi (dative), Iesoun (accusative) and Iesou (vocative). This killed two rabbits with one stone: the name became declinable, and the final ayin, which has no Greek equivalent, was replaced by a sigma (s).

      Similar fact occurred with Judas, who reflects the Greek form Ioudas, which in Hebrew is Yehudah (Judah). Other Hebrew names that end with guttural he has in Greek, in Latin and in Portuguese at the end the sound: Isaiah, Jeremiah, Josiah, Sofonias et al. Another example is the word Mashiach, which ends with the guttural sound cheth (ch), which in Greek, Latin and Portuguese gave way to sound s: Messiah.

      3. Was the New Testament originally written by the apostles in Hebrew or Aramaic and later translated into Greek? The answer is no. It is possible that some collections of Jesus’ teachings, written in Aramaic (the so-called lodge), had circulated among Christians and served Matthew and Luke as they wrote their gospels. But no manuscript of these lodges has been found to this day. The New Testament translator can not be based on hypothetical texts. The books of the New Testament were all written in Greek, coiné, and it is in the Greek text that the translations that have been made through the centuries have been based.

      4. Were the originals of the Scriptures, especially the New Testament, destroyed by wars, especially in the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD? Answer: There is no autograph manuscript of any book of the Bible. In both the Old Testament and the New Testaments, we have copies throughout the centuries. Specialists check and scientifically evaluate these copies in order to get as close as possible to the autograph texts. Copies of the Hebrew and Greek manuscripts were made in the countries of the Biblical world, which ensured their preservation through the centuries.

      5. Jerome. The quotation [from a letter from Jerome to Pope Damasus, fearing to be accused in the future of being a forger for imparting various additions, changes, and corrections to the Scriptures] is too brief and must be proven with indication of source. What’s more, out-of-context citations can lead to hasty and false conclusions.

      6. In John 19: 19-20, however, it is said that “it was written thus in Hebrew, Latin and Greek: ‘Jesus of Nazareth, King of the Jews.’” So the name of Jesus was not just transliterated: it was written in the current form of each of the three languages. In Hebrew it was Yeshua, “as did F. Delitzsch in his translation of the New Testament from Greek into Hebrew. In Greek it was Iesous, and in Latin, Iesus. Luke 23:38. On doubtful reading should not be based arguments, and this is the case here. The words “in Greek, Roman, and Hebrew letters” do not appear in the best and oldest manuscripts and so are absent from modern translations such as the Bible in Today’s Language, the New International Version, and the Jerusalem Bible. The revised and Almeida puts these words in brackets (see Bruce Metzger, A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, 2nd ed., 1994, pp. 154 and 217)

      Nor is the assertion that a proper name can not be translated. Generally, proper names do not translate; sometimes yes. This is what happened to Simon, to whom Jesus said, “His name is Simon. From now on his name will be Cephas (which means Peter)” (John 1:42). Cephas is the Aramaic word that means “stone.” Peter is in Greek Petros, which means “stone”. And that name, the result of translation and not of transliteration, was what became more common, and based on it was that Jesus constructed the pun recorded in Matthew 16:18.

      7. How did the name Yehoshua “become Jesus (historical phonetics)? Answer: We have already seen that the word Jesus is not derived directly from Yehoshua, “but from the abbreviated form Yeshua”, through Greek and Latin. The initial consonant J was explained above in item 1. Now the average s in Jesus. In the Hebrew word Yeshua, “the sh group represents the shin consonant. Because there is no sound in Greek corresponding to this fricative palatal consonant, which sounds like axis xis, the Jews replaced it with sigma, also fricative but linguguodental, which in Greek, even between vowels, sounds like ss. The Greek diphthong or it sounds u. And the appearance of the final s was explained in item 2, above. The evolution of the term from one language to another is as follows: Yeshua “(Hebrew)> Iesous (Greek)> Jesus (Latin)> Jesus (Portuguese).

      Finally, it must be clarified that for the reader the real meaning of names is not assured by their transliteration. First, there is an insurmountable problem in transliteration, which is the lack of equivalence of some sounds in the alphabets of the two languages. This is true of Hebrew, in relation to tau without daghesh, to the pronouncement of the end mem and nun, and to guttural he, cheth, and ayin. The ayin only the Orientals are able to pronounce correctly. Then suppose that in the translation of the New Testament we would print Yeshua “Hammashiach instead of Jesus Christ. Would this ensure the maintenance of the “real meaning expressed in the original”? Obviously not. This would only cause complete confusion in the minds of readers. In the use of the name Jesus Christ the writers of the New Testament books set an example to be followed by today’s translators: they used the Greek word commonly-Iesous-to denote the Hebrew Yeshua. ” The title Christós, which came to be name, was translated by the apostles from Hebrew to Greek. See, for example, John 1:41, a passage in which Andrew tells Peter: “We have found the Messiah. (Messiah means Christ). ” It is that readers of the Gospel of John did not know what the Messiah meant, but they knew that Christ meant to be anointed. The translator today must distinguish between Christ as the name united to Jesus and the Messiah as the title of Jesus. As we have seen, this is plain in John 1:41. And also in Matthew 16:16, “You are the Messiah, the Son of God.” But even this way of translating is not enough to convey to the reader the deeper meaning of the original. So, one of the resources used is the marginal note placement where appropriate. For example, in Matthew 1:21 the Bible in Today’s Language has a call on the margin, thus: “Jesus means ‘The Eternal God saves.’” In the case of Messiah, the resource used is another: the asterisk joined to this word points the reader to the Vocabulary, which reads: Messiah – the Savior promised in the Old Testament. Messiah (Hebrew) is the same as Christ (Greek) and means “Anointed.” (See UNGIR). In this last entry is explained what the anointing is.



    • Gina

      David’s reply is thorough. Simplified, the Hebrew letters could not be transliterated into the Greek, because they are different alphabets. So the Greek spelling mimicked the sound of Yeshua the best that they could. The letter “i” before a vowel rendered the “ye” sound. Same in the Latin. “i” before the vowel was pronounced as a “ye” sound. They later added a hook to the bottom of the “i” and created the “j” to differentiate between the vowel sound of the “i” (eee) and the consonant sound of the “i” (yeh). In the Latin and then the English spelling is was originally pronounced “Yesu”.

      In German today it is still pronounced “Yesu”. All of the “J” names originally were pronounced with a “Y” (yeh) sound. So, phonetically it traces back to the Greek as “Ye sh u” and then add the “ah” that was dropped in favor of the case definitive sigma “s”… and you have Yeshua in the Hebrew.

      But, the French influence on the English language later slurred the “y” consonant sound of the “j” to the soft gee sound of the “g”. Still more slurring of the English over time, and it hardened in the “j” of Jeezzus that is spoken today.

      When we say Jesus we still mean the same person as the Hebrew Yeshua… the Christ, the Messiah, the Son of God.

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